Extrajudicial killings of tyrants and succesful countries in modern times?

Started by Martinus, October 25, 2011, 05:40:29 AM

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Martinus

October 25, 2011, 05:40:29 AM
The fate of Gaddafi got me thinking: what is the correlation between violently murdering a tyrant or letting him live/putting him on trial and the subsequent success of the government resulting from such overthrow, in terms of welfare and democracy?

How many examples are there of succesful democratic countries that have tyrannicide as the "founding myth" in the modern times?

For the purpose of this exercise, consider modern times to be the last 400 years or so. And countries which had to go through another revolution/restoration to reach normalcy (e.g. France or England) dont count.

I can think of post-WW2 Italy only. Any other examples?

Valdemar

#1
October 25, 2011, 05:45:08 AM
the Sovjets will probably consider killing the Czar a succesful coup d'Etat

V

Grinning_Colossus

#2
October 25, 2011, 05:51:01 AM
Romania is doing alright.
Quis futuit ipsos fututores?

Martinus

#3
October 25, 2011, 05:54:07 AM
Quote from: Valdemar on October 25, 2011, 05:45:08 AM
the Sovjets will probably consider killing the Czar a succesful coup d'Etat

V

A succesful democratic state? Not really.

Martinus

#4
October 25, 2011, 05:54:43 AM
Quote from: Grinning_Colossus on October 25, 2011, 05:51:01 AM
Romania is doing alright.

Was it extrajudicial or death penalty following a trial?

Grinning_Colossus

#5
October 25, 2011, 05:59:20 AM Last Edit: October 25, 2011, 06:03:13 AM by Grinning_Colossus
It depends on how one defines 'judicial'. He was 'tried' and executed in a matter of hours by the military.
Quis futuit ipsos fututores?

Eddie Teach

#6
October 25, 2011, 06:03:16 AM
What about driving the old monarch to insanity?  :hmm:
To sleep, perchance to dream. But in that sleep of death, what dreams may come?

dps

#7
October 25, 2011, 11:01:39 AM
Quote from: Martinus on October 25, 2011, 05:40:29 AM
The fate of Gaddafi got me thinking: what is the correlation between violently murdering a tyrant or letting him live/putting him on trial and the subsequent success of the government resulting from such overthrow, in terms of welfare and democracy?

How many examples are there of succesful democratic countries that have tyrannicide as the "founding myth" in the modern times?

For the purpose of this exercise, consider modern times to be the last 400 years or so. And countries which had to go through another revolution/restoration to reach normalcy (e.g. France or England) dont count.

I can think of post-WW2 Italy only. Any other examples?

Victor Emmanuel III wasn't murdered, nor was he ever put on trial for anything.  He was merely forced to abdicate and to go into exile.  And he wasn't really a tyrant, more just a figurehead--Mussolini was the tyrant.

And if you meant Mussolini, his overthrow and killing wasn't post-war;  he was overthown and later killed during the war.


The Brain

#8
October 25, 2011, 11:25:39 AM
Israel almost has one, but Folke Bernadotte wasn't a tyrant.
Women want me. Men want to be with me.

Viking

#9
October 25, 2011, 11:30:02 AM Last Edit: October 25, 2011, 11:41:17 AM by Viking
Quote from: The Brain on October 25, 2011, 11:25:39 AM
Israel almost has one, but Folke Bernadotte wasn't a tyrant.

Abd Al-Qadir Al-Huseyni might be a candidate.
First Maxim - "There are only two amounts, too few and enough."
First Corollary - "You cannot have too many soldiers, only too few supplies."
Second Maxim - "Be willing to exchange a bad idea for a good one."
Second Corollary - "You can only be wrong or agree with me."

A terrorist which starts a slaughter quoting Locke, Burke and Mill has completely missed the point.
The fact remains that the only person or group to applaud the Norway massacre are random Islamists.

DGuller

#10
October 25, 2011, 11:34:13 AM
I wouldn't really consider post-WW2 Italy a success story.  :hmm:
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