Lawyers representing criminals: should they be judge?

[The Minsky Moment]

Using the same logic, all former prosecutors should have to recuse themselves whenever the state (or federal government) is a party.

that he recuse himself from a case, to avoid any kind of suspicion, I don't think it's such a bad idea.

So lets say as a private lawyer I give legal advice to the AARP (American Associated of Retired People) on compliance with media and election law issues.

If I later become a judge, do I have to recuse myself anytime a retiree is a party to the lawsuit?

[The Minsky Moment]

Justice Lebel was removed from the case he was about to judge, because he did not inform anyone that he served as legal counsel (for a number of years, it seem, and not simply once) in copywright matters with the Hell's Angels (a group since then declared "a criminal organization"). He was therefore removed from the case by the Chief Justice.

I don't get it.

As I understand this case, Person A, hired him to register a bunch of trademarks relating to the Hell's Angels.

Three years later person B appears before him as a defendant in a criminal case.

The only connection that person B has to Person A (the former client) is that Person B happens to be in the same motorcycle club.  How is that grounds for recusal?

Justice Lebel's nomination in 2009 is one of those rare instances where there was no clear consensus on his merits as a jurist, or his professional experience, leaving ample room for remarking his very clear ties with the Conservative party. Even today, as a judge, it seems his merits are...less than stellar.   

Ok so he was a crappy appointment.  That's unfortunate.  But not a reason to create special recusal rules for him.